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Hi EveryoneI've recently come across the below article on the FT which discusses Jones Day's involvement in a controversial use of Texas statute with Johnson & Johnson: [URL unfurl="true"]https://www.ft.com/content/de1da1ea-d19a-4f2d-a790-8ff45368d7d1[/URL]I've tried to do some research on the original basis for the statute and why Texas has provided a mechanism to split a company into two in the first place but am not getting any luck. Would be grateful for any insight!Thanks
Hi Everyone
I've recently come across the below article on the FT which discusses Jones Day's involvement in a controversial use of Texas statute with Johnson & Johnson:
[URL unfurl="true"]https://www.ft.com/content/de1da1ea-d19a-4f2d-a790-8ff45368d7d1[/URL]
I've tried to do some research on the original basis for the statute and why Texas has provided a mechanism to split a company into two in the first place but am not getting any luck. Would be grateful for any insight!
Thanks
